While it was the case that under the 'golden age' of capitalism (the 1950s) that the level of class inequality in income and wealth was lower (as well documented by Thomas Piketty in his book, Capital in the Twenty-First Century), there still was a significant level of class inequality in income and wealth; it didn't disappear! If it had, however, then capitalism would have ceased to function in accordance with its own inner-nature and logic. The reason for this is to be found in the causal foundations of the capitalist economic system in terms of the social power relation of production between capitalists and wage-workers (ie, between capital and labour), ie., a social institutional relation over who owns and controls the means of production, with the aim of making a monetary profit. As long as that social power relation of production (which is a class relation) is in place, you will always, to varying degrees, have class inequalities in income and wealth. Capitalism, if you accept Marx's account of it, has an in-built tendency toward growing class inequalities in income and wealth. The latter is an outward outcome of the casual essence of the economic system of capitalism. None of this should be forgotten in discussions about the 'golden age' of capitalism (the 1950s).
Once again, it's a failure to scientifically understand the capitalist economic system in terms of Marx's distinction between appearance and essence.
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